Interested in 'naive' pronunciation












3














I'd like to know why 'naive' is pronounced ny-eve but is spelt naive. Where is the ny part coming from? 'na-' isn't pronounced ny, and if the ny part is nai-, then there is only -ve left. This is about pronunciation










share|improve this question




















  • 2




    The pronunciation of a word isn't dictated by its spelling. In English, it's better to think of spelling as a clue about the word's pronunciation, rather than as a hard-and-fast rule.
    – Mark Beadles
    Dec 20 at 15:49








  • 2




    @Lordology Nah. Cholmondeley is odd. Taliaferro is odd. Trottiscliffe is odd. Naive is pretty regular.
    – choster
    Dec 20 at 15:59






  • 3




    @Lordology Choster was giving you examples where spelling and pronunciation differ far more widely than in 'naive'. Cholmondeley - Chumley, Taliaferro - Toliver and Trottiscliffe - Trosley. However, they are all either surnames or Placenames and so can perhaps be expected to be on the eccentric side.
    – Spagirl
    Dec 20 at 16:21






  • 2




    Does anyone else pronounce it nah-EVE?
    – KarlG
    Dec 20 at 19:11








  • 2




    Say nah-eve slowly. Then start saying it faster and faster.
    – Kevin
    Dec 20 at 19:52
















3














I'd like to know why 'naive' is pronounced ny-eve but is spelt naive. Where is the ny part coming from? 'na-' isn't pronounced ny, and if the ny part is nai-, then there is only -ve left. This is about pronunciation










share|improve this question




















  • 2




    The pronunciation of a word isn't dictated by its spelling. In English, it's better to think of spelling as a clue about the word's pronunciation, rather than as a hard-and-fast rule.
    – Mark Beadles
    Dec 20 at 15:49








  • 2




    @Lordology Nah. Cholmondeley is odd. Taliaferro is odd. Trottiscliffe is odd. Naive is pretty regular.
    – choster
    Dec 20 at 15:59






  • 3




    @Lordology Choster was giving you examples where spelling and pronunciation differ far more widely than in 'naive'. Cholmondeley - Chumley, Taliaferro - Toliver and Trottiscliffe - Trosley. However, they are all either surnames or Placenames and so can perhaps be expected to be on the eccentric side.
    – Spagirl
    Dec 20 at 16:21






  • 2




    Does anyone else pronounce it nah-EVE?
    – KarlG
    Dec 20 at 19:11








  • 2




    Say nah-eve slowly. Then start saying it faster and faster.
    – Kevin
    Dec 20 at 19:52














3












3








3


1





I'd like to know why 'naive' is pronounced ny-eve but is spelt naive. Where is the ny part coming from? 'na-' isn't pronounced ny, and if the ny part is nai-, then there is only -ve left. This is about pronunciation










share|improve this question















I'd like to know why 'naive' is pronounced ny-eve but is spelt naive. Where is the ny part coming from? 'na-' isn't pronounced ny, and if the ny part is nai-, then there is only -ve left. This is about pronunciation







pronunciation pronunciation-vs-spelling






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Dec 21 at 18:52

























asked Dec 20 at 15:44









Lordology

43910




43910








  • 2




    The pronunciation of a word isn't dictated by its spelling. In English, it's better to think of spelling as a clue about the word's pronunciation, rather than as a hard-and-fast rule.
    – Mark Beadles
    Dec 20 at 15:49








  • 2




    @Lordology Nah. Cholmondeley is odd. Taliaferro is odd. Trottiscliffe is odd. Naive is pretty regular.
    – choster
    Dec 20 at 15:59






  • 3




    @Lordology Choster was giving you examples where spelling and pronunciation differ far more widely than in 'naive'. Cholmondeley - Chumley, Taliaferro - Toliver and Trottiscliffe - Trosley. However, they are all either surnames or Placenames and so can perhaps be expected to be on the eccentric side.
    – Spagirl
    Dec 20 at 16:21






  • 2




    Does anyone else pronounce it nah-EVE?
    – KarlG
    Dec 20 at 19:11








  • 2




    Say nah-eve slowly. Then start saying it faster and faster.
    – Kevin
    Dec 20 at 19:52














  • 2




    The pronunciation of a word isn't dictated by its spelling. In English, it's better to think of spelling as a clue about the word's pronunciation, rather than as a hard-and-fast rule.
    – Mark Beadles
    Dec 20 at 15:49








  • 2




    @Lordology Nah. Cholmondeley is odd. Taliaferro is odd. Trottiscliffe is odd. Naive is pretty regular.
    – choster
    Dec 20 at 15:59






  • 3




    @Lordology Choster was giving you examples where spelling and pronunciation differ far more widely than in 'naive'. Cholmondeley - Chumley, Taliaferro - Toliver and Trottiscliffe - Trosley. However, they are all either surnames or Placenames and so can perhaps be expected to be on the eccentric side.
    – Spagirl
    Dec 20 at 16:21






  • 2




    Does anyone else pronounce it nah-EVE?
    – KarlG
    Dec 20 at 19:11








  • 2




    Say nah-eve slowly. Then start saying it faster and faster.
    – Kevin
    Dec 20 at 19:52








2




2




The pronunciation of a word isn't dictated by its spelling. In English, it's better to think of spelling as a clue about the word's pronunciation, rather than as a hard-and-fast rule.
– Mark Beadles
Dec 20 at 15:49






The pronunciation of a word isn't dictated by its spelling. In English, it's better to think of spelling as a clue about the word's pronunciation, rather than as a hard-and-fast rule.
– Mark Beadles
Dec 20 at 15:49






2




2




@Lordology Nah. Cholmondeley is odd. Taliaferro is odd. Trottiscliffe is odd. Naive is pretty regular.
– choster
Dec 20 at 15:59




@Lordology Nah. Cholmondeley is odd. Taliaferro is odd. Trottiscliffe is odd. Naive is pretty regular.
– choster
Dec 20 at 15:59




3




3




@Lordology Choster was giving you examples where spelling and pronunciation differ far more widely than in 'naive'. Cholmondeley - Chumley, Taliaferro - Toliver and Trottiscliffe - Trosley. However, they are all either surnames or Placenames and so can perhaps be expected to be on the eccentric side.
– Spagirl
Dec 20 at 16:21




@Lordology Choster was giving you examples where spelling and pronunciation differ far more widely than in 'naive'. Cholmondeley - Chumley, Taliaferro - Toliver and Trottiscliffe - Trosley. However, they are all either surnames or Placenames and so can perhaps be expected to be on the eccentric side.
– Spagirl
Dec 20 at 16:21




2




2




Does anyone else pronounce it nah-EVE?
– KarlG
Dec 20 at 19:11






Does anyone else pronounce it nah-EVE?
– KarlG
Dec 20 at 19:11






2




2




Say nah-eve slowly. Then start saying it faster and faster.
– Kevin
Dec 20 at 19:52




Say nah-eve slowly. Then start saying it faster and faster.
– Kevin
Dec 20 at 19:52










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















8














French naïf/naïve does not have a falling diphthong, so its pronunciation wouldn't explain the use of /aɪ/ in English.



English doesn't have that many words where /ɑ/ comes directly before another vowel, especially not when the /ɑ/ is in a "weak" position (unstressed, or at least directly before another vowel with a higher level of stress). Words with /aɪ/ before a stressed vowel are a bit more common; e.g. biography, diameter.



The replacement of /ɑ/ with /aɪ/ is presumably an assimilation to the /i/ in the next syllable. In other contexts, other vowels may turn into diphthongs before a palatal glide /j/ in the following syllable: for example, lawyer has come to be pronounced with the /ɔɪ/ diphthong in the first syllable for many people, and words like arroyo, Loyola, Toyota likewise have /ɔɪ/ instead of /o/ as a syllable nucleus.



Something else that might be relevant is that apparently, people once used the pronunciation "/neɪˈiːv/", with an anglicized "long a" value for the first vowel. This might have made it easier for the diphthong /aɪ/ to eventually become established. Other words spelled with "a" that had variants with /eɪ/ and that are now often pronounced with /aɪ/ (rather than ɑ) in its place are Naomi and Israel. Dais also can have either /eɪ/ or /aɪ/ in the first syllable (the French source word was a monosyllable, but the English pronunciation has deviated in syllable count).






share|improve this answer































    3














    It's of French origin, if that helps. I don't speak French myself.




    Word Origin for naive



    C7: from French, feminine of naïf, from Old French naif native, spontaneous, from Latin nātīvus native , from nasci to be born



    Collins English Dictionary - Complete & Unabridged 2012 Digital Edition
    © William Collins Sons & Co. Ltd. 1979, 1986 © HarperCollins



    Publishers 1998, 2000, 2003, 2005, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2012



    Word Origin and History for naive



    adj.



    1650s, "natural, simple, artless," from French naïve , fem. of naïf , from Old French naif "naive, natural, genuine; just born; foolish, innocent; unspoiled, unworked" (13c.),



    from Latin nativus "not artificial," also "native, rustic," literally "born, innate, natural" (see native (adj.)). Related: Naively .



    Online Etymology Dictionary, © 2010 Douglas Harper




    So I'm surprised it doesn't end with -eoux :)






    share|improve this answer

















    • 2




      It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
      – Jeff Zeitlin
      Dec 20 at 16:16










    • Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
      – CrossRoads
      Dec 20 at 16:32










    • Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
      – Jeff Zeitlin
      Dec 20 at 16:39






    • 1




      @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
      – choster
      Dec 20 at 18:01



















    -2














    That's why the word is really naïve. So there are in effect two i's.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      Could you back this up with any cited sources?
      – Lordology
      Dec 20 at 16:42






    • 9




      The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
      – Juhasz
      Dec 20 at 17:21






    • 3




      As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
      – John Montgomery
      Dec 20 at 19:46






    • 1




      I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
      – gidds
      Dec 20 at 23:41











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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    8














    French naïf/naïve does not have a falling diphthong, so its pronunciation wouldn't explain the use of /aɪ/ in English.



    English doesn't have that many words where /ɑ/ comes directly before another vowel, especially not when the /ɑ/ is in a "weak" position (unstressed, or at least directly before another vowel with a higher level of stress). Words with /aɪ/ before a stressed vowel are a bit more common; e.g. biography, diameter.



    The replacement of /ɑ/ with /aɪ/ is presumably an assimilation to the /i/ in the next syllable. In other contexts, other vowels may turn into diphthongs before a palatal glide /j/ in the following syllable: for example, lawyer has come to be pronounced with the /ɔɪ/ diphthong in the first syllable for many people, and words like arroyo, Loyola, Toyota likewise have /ɔɪ/ instead of /o/ as a syllable nucleus.



    Something else that might be relevant is that apparently, people once used the pronunciation "/neɪˈiːv/", with an anglicized "long a" value for the first vowel. This might have made it easier for the diphthong /aɪ/ to eventually become established. Other words spelled with "a" that had variants with /eɪ/ and that are now often pronounced with /aɪ/ (rather than ɑ) in its place are Naomi and Israel. Dais also can have either /eɪ/ or /aɪ/ in the first syllable (the French source word was a monosyllable, but the English pronunciation has deviated in syllable count).






    share|improve this answer




























      8














      French naïf/naïve does not have a falling diphthong, so its pronunciation wouldn't explain the use of /aɪ/ in English.



      English doesn't have that many words where /ɑ/ comes directly before another vowel, especially not when the /ɑ/ is in a "weak" position (unstressed, or at least directly before another vowel with a higher level of stress). Words with /aɪ/ before a stressed vowel are a bit more common; e.g. biography, diameter.



      The replacement of /ɑ/ with /aɪ/ is presumably an assimilation to the /i/ in the next syllable. In other contexts, other vowels may turn into diphthongs before a palatal glide /j/ in the following syllable: for example, lawyer has come to be pronounced with the /ɔɪ/ diphthong in the first syllable for many people, and words like arroyo, Loyola, Toyota likewise have /ɔɪ/ instead of /o/ as a syllable nucleus.



      Something else that might be relevant is that apparently, people once used the pronunciation "/neɪˈiːv/", with an anglicized "long a" value for the first vowel. This might have made it easier for the diphthong /aɪ/ to eventually become established. Other words spelled with "a" that had variants with /eɪ/ and that are now often pronounced with /aɪ/ (rather than ɑ) in its place are Naomi and Israel. Dais also can have either /eɪ/ or /aɪ/ in the first syllable (the French source word was a monosyllable, but the English pronunciation has deviated in syllable count).






      share|improve this answer


























        8












        8








        8






        French naïf/naïve does not have a falling diphthong, so its pronunciation wouldn't explain the use of /aɪ/ in English.



        English doesn't have that many words where /ɑ/ comes directly before another vowel, especially not when the /ɑ/ is in a "weak" position (unstressed, or at least directly before another vowel with a higher level of stress). Words with /aɪ/ before a stressed vowel are a bit more common; e.g. biography, diameter.



        The replacement of /ɑ/ with /aɪ/ is presumably an assimilation to the /i/ in the next syllable. In other contexts, other vowels may turn into diphthongs before a palatal glide /j/ in the following syllable: for example, lawyer has come to be pronounced with the /ɔɪ/ diphthong in the first syllable for many people, and words like arroyo, Loyola, Toyota likewise have /ɔɪ/ instead of /o/ as a syllable nucleus.



        Something else that might be relevant is that apparently, people once used the pronunciation "/neɪˈiːv/", with an anglicized "long a" value for the first vowel. This might have made it easier for the diphthong /aɪ/ to eventually become established. Other words spelled with "a" that had variants with /eɪ/ and that are now often pronounced with /aɪ/ (rather than ɑ) in its place are Naomi and Israel. Dais also can have either /eɪ/ or /aɪ/ in the first syllable (the French source word was a monosyllable, but the English pronunciation has deviated in syllable count).






        share|improve this answer














        French naïf/naïve does not have a falling diphthong, so its pronunciation wouldn't explain the use of /aɪ/ in English.



        English doesn't have that many words where /ɑ/ comes directly before another vowel, especially not when the /ɑ/ is in a "weak" position (unstressed, or at least directly before another vowel with a higher level of stress). Words with /aɪ/ before a stressed vowel are a bit more common; e.g. biography, diameter.



        The replacement of /ɑ/ with /aɪ/ is presumably an assimilation to the /i/ in the next syllable. In other contexts, other vowels may turn into diphthongs before a palatal glide /j/ in the following syllable: for example, lawyer has come to be pronounced with the /ɔɪ/ diphthong in the first syllable for many people, and words like arroyo, Loyola, Toyota likewise have /ɔɪ/ instead of /o/ as a syllable nucleus.



        Something else that might be relevant is that apparently, people once used the pronunciation "/neɪˈiːv/", with an anglicized "long a" value for the first vowel. This might have made it easier for the diphthong /aɪ/ to eventually become established. Other words spelled with "a" that had variants with /eɪ/ and that are now often pronounced with /aɪ/ (rather than ɑ) in its place are Naomi and Israel. Dais also can have either /eɪ/ or /aɪ/ in the first syllable (the French source word was a monosyllable, but the English pronunciation has deviated in syllable count).







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited Dec 20 at 16:24

























        answered Dec 20 at 16:19









        sumelic

        45.8k8108211




        45.8k8108211

























            3














            It's of French origin, if that helps. I don't speak French myself.




            Word Origin for naive



            C7: from French, feminine of naïf, from Old French naif native, spontaneous, from Latin nātīvus native , from nasci to be born



            Collins English Dictionary - Complete & Unabridged 2012 Digital Edition
            © William Collins Sons & Co. Ltd. 1979, 1986 © HarperCollins



            Publishers 1998, 2000, 2003, 2005, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2012



            Word Origin and History for naive



            adj.



            1650s, "natural, simple, artless," from French naïve , fem. of naïf , from Old French naif "naive, natural, genuine; just born; foolish, innocent; unspoiled, unworked" (13c.),



            from Latin nativus "not artificial," also "native, rustic," literally "born, innate, natural" (see native (adj.)). Related: Naively .



            Online Etymology Dictionary, © 2010 Douglas Harper




            So I'm surprised it doesn't end with -eoux :)






            share|improve this answer

















            • 2




              It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:16










            • Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
              – CrossRoads
              Dec 20 at 16:32










            • Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:39






            • 1




              @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
              – choster
              Dec 20 at 18:01
















            3














            It's of French origin, if that helps. I don't speak French myself.




            Word Origin for naive



            C7: from French, feminine of naïf, from Old French naif native, spontaneous, from Latin nātīvus native , from nasci to be born



            Collins English Dictionary - Complete & Unabridged 2012 Digital Edition
            © William Collins Sons & Co. Ltd. 1979, 1986 © HarperCollins



            Publishers 1998, 2000, 2003, 2005, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2012



            Word Origin and History for naive



            adj.



            1650s, "natural, simple, artless," from French naïve , fem. of naïf , from Old French naif "naive, natural, genuine; just born; foolish, innocent; unspoiled, unworked" (13c.),



            from Latin nativus "not artificial," also "native, rustic," literally "born, innate, natural" (see native (adj.)). Related: Naively .



            Online Etymology Dictionary, © 2010 Douglas Harper




            So I'm surprised it doesn't end with -eoux :)






            share|improve this answer

















            • 2




              It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:16










            • Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
              – CrossRoads
              Dec 20 at 16:32










            • Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:39






            • 1




              @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
              – choster
              Dec 20 at 18:01














            3












            3








            3






            It's of French origin, if that helps. I don't speak French myself.




            Word Origin for naive



            C7: from French, feminine of naïf, from Old French naif native, spontaneous, from Latin nātīvus native , from nasci to be born



            Collins English Dictionary - Complete & Unabridged 2012 Digital Edition
            © William Collins Sons & Co. Ltd. 1979, 1986 © HarperCollins



            Publishers 1998, 2000, 2003, 2005, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2012



            Word Origin and History for naive



            adj.



            1650s, "natural, simple, artless," from French naïve , fem. of naïf , from Old French naif "naive, natural, genuine; just born; foolish, innocent; unspoiled, unworked" (13c.),



            from Latin nativus "not artificial," also "native, rustic," literally "born, innate, natural" (see native (adj.)). Related: Naively .



            Online Etymology Dictionary, © 2010 Douglas Harper




            So I'm surprised it doesn't end with -eoux :)






            share|improve this answer












            It's of French origin, if that helps. I don't speak French myself.




            Word Origin for naive



            C7: from French, feminine of naïf, from Old French naif native, spontaneous, from Latin nātīvus native , from nasci to be born



            Collins English Dictionary - Complete & Unabridged 2012 Digital Edition
            © William Collins Sons & Co. Ltd. 1979, 1986 © HarperCollins



            Publishers 1998, 2000, 2003, 2005, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2012



            Word Origin and History for naive



            adj.



            1650s, "natural, simple, artless," from French naïve , fem. of naïf , from Old French naif "naive, natural, genuine; just born; foolish, innocent; unspoiled, unworked" (13c.),



            from Latin nativus "not artificial," also "native, rustic," literally "born, innate, natural" (see native (adj.)). Related: Naively .



            Online Etymology Dictionary, © 2010 Douglas Harper




            So I'm surprised it doesn't end with -eoux :)







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Dec 20 at 15:51









            CrossRoads

            1853




            1853








            • 2




              It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:16










            • Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
              – CrossRoads
              Dec 20 at 16:32










            • Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:39






            • 1




              @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
              – choster
              Dec 20 at 18:01














            • 2




              It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:16










            • Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
              – CrossRoads
              Dec 20 at 16:32










            • Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
              – Jeff Zeitlin
              Dec 20 at 16:39






            • 1




              @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
              – choster
              Dec 20 at 18:01








            2




            2




            It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
            – Jeff Zeitlin
            Dec 20 at 16:16




            It is also noteworthy that the word is often - in English, not French - written with a dieresis over the i (naïve) to indicate that the two vowels are to be pronounced separately, not as a diphthong.
            – Jeff Zeitlin
            Dec 20 at 16:16












            Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
            – CrossRoads
            Dec 20 at 16:32




            Is there a way to do that on a standard keyboard?
            – CrossRoads
            Dec 20 at 16:32












            Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
            – Jeff Zeitlin
            Dec 20 at 16:39




            Not on an EN-US or EN-UK standard keyboard, but I believe EN-CA can do it, most European language keyboards can, and US-International can. I use US-International routinely because I need to do multilingual word processing.
            – Jeff Zeitlin
            Dec 20 at 16:39




            1




            1




            @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
            – choster
            Dec 20 at 18:01




            @CrossRoads See at SU How do I type accented character in Windows? and on a Mac.
            – choster
            Dec 20 at 18:01











            -2














            That's why the word is really naïve. So there are in effect two i's.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 1




              Could you back this up with any cited sources?
              – Lordology
              Dec 20 at 16:42






            • 9




              The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
              – Juhasz
              Dec 20 at 17:21






            • 3




              As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
              – John Montgomery
              Dec 20 at 19:46






            • 1




              I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
              – gidds
              Dec 20 at 23:41
















            -2














            That's why the word is really naïve. So there are in effect two i's.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 1




              Could you back this up with any cited sources?
              – Lordology
              Dec 20 at 16:42






            • 9




              The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
              – Juhasz
              Dec 20 at 17:21






            • 3




              As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
              – John Montgomery
              Dec 20 at 19:46






            • 1




              I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
              – gidds
              Dec 20 at 23:41














            -2












            -2








            -2






            That's why the word is really naïve. So there are in effect two i's.






            share|improve this answer












            That's why the word is really naïve. So there are in effect two i's.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Dec 20 at 16:41









            QuentinUK

            1073




            1073








            • 1




              Could you back this up with any cited sources?
              – Lordology
              Dec 20 at 16:42






            • 9




              The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
              – Juhasz
              Dec 20 at 17:21






            • 3




              As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
              – John Montgomery
              Dec 20 at 19:46






            • 1




              I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
              – gidds
              Dec 20 at 23:41














            • 1




              Could you back this up with any cited sources?
              – Lordology
              Dec 20 at 16:42






            • 9




              The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
              – Juhasz
              Dec 20 at 17:21






            • 3




              As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
              – John Montgomery
              Dec 20 at 19:46






            • 1




              I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
              – gidds
              Dec 20 at 23:41








            1




            1




            Could you back this up with any cited sources?
            – Lordology
            Dec 20 at 16:42




            Could you back this up with any cited sources?
            – Lordology
            Dec 20 at 16:42




            9




            9




            The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
            – Juhasz
            Dec 20 at 17:21




            The diaeresis (two dots) over the ï doesn't indicate two i's; it indicates that the i should be pronounced as a separate vowel, and not as an "ai" diphthong. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic). So it's na-ive, and not naive.
            – Juhasz
            Dec 20 at 17:21




            3




            3




            As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
            – John Montgomery
            Dec 20 at 19:46




            As another example, the word "reentry" is properly spelled as "reëntry." That doesn't indicate that there's "three e's" in the word, it indicates that you pronounce it re-en-try rather than reen-try.
            – John Montgomery
            Dec 20 at 19:46




            1




            1




            I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
            – gidds
            Dec 20 at 23:41




            I think the typographical convention (of using a diaeresis to indicate a vowel pronounced separately) is and old one, and rarely used these days; ‘naïve’ is one of the few words you still see that use it (along with ‘Noël’). It's much more common to use a hyphen (e.g. ‘co-operate’), or nothing at all (e.g. ‘cooperate’).
            – gidds
            Dec 20 at 23:41


















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