Why “god” in godparent?












22















I'm looking for the etymology of words like godparent, godchild, etc. In particular, why "god" is added as a prefix? So far I haven't found an explanation. Wiktionary (for godfather) states:




From Middle English godfader, from Old English godfæder (“godfather”), equivalent to god +‎ father. Cognate with Old Saxon godfadar (“godfather”), Middle Dutch godvader (“godfather”), Danish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Swedish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Icelandic guðfaðir (“godfather”). Morphologically god +‎ father.




Not very helpful. Wikipedia does not provide clues either. It states:




... by the end of the 6th century, they were being noted to as "compaters" and "commaters"




which is Latin. Spanish and French terms follow a similar structure, without adding the "god" prefix (eg. "com-padre" and "co-madre" in Spanish). It seems the German word also does not contain the particle "god" in it. Any idea about the origin of such word?










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  • 1





    Note that there is also the regional German word Gote for godmother, and the etymology given by Duden states that it derives from Old High German gota, cognate with Old English godmōdor in the sense of spiritual mother.

    – njuffa
    20 hours ago


















22















I'm looking for the etymology of words like godparent, godchild, etc. In particular, why "god" is added as a prefix? So far I haven't found an explanation. Wiktionary (for godfather) states:




From Middle English godfader, from Old English godfæder (“godfather”), equivalent to god +‎ father. Cognate with Old Saxon godfadar (“godfather”), Middle Dutch godvader (“godfather”), Danish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Swedish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Icelandic guðfaðir (“godfather”). Morphologically god +‎ father.




Not very helpful. Wikipedia does not provide clues either. It states:




... by the end of the 6th century, they were being noted to as "compaters" and "commaters"




which is Latin. Spanish and French terms follow a similar structure, without adding the "god" prefix (eg. "com-padre" and "co-madre" in Spanish). It seems the German word also does not contain the particle "god" in it. Any idea about the origin of such word?










share|improve this question


















  • 1





    Note that there is also the regional German word Gote for godmother, and the etymology given by Duden states that it derives from Old High German gota, cognate with Old English godmōdor in the sense of spiritual mother.

    – njuffa
    20 hours ago
















22












22








22


1






I'm looking for the etymology of words like godparent, godchild, etc. In particular, why "god" is added as a prefix? So far I haven't found an explanation. Wiktionary (for godfather) states:




From Middle English godfader, from Old English godfæder (“godfather”), equivalent to god +‎ father. Cognate with Old Saxon godfadar (“godfather”), Middle Dutch godvader (“godfather”), Danish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Swedish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Icelandic guðfaðir (“godfather”). Morphologically god +‎ father.




Not very helpful. Wikipedia does not provide clues either. It states:




... by the end of the 6th century, they were being noted to as "compaters" and "commaters"




which is Latin. Spanish and French terms follow a similar structure, without adding the "god" prefix (eg. "com-padre" and "co-madre" in Spanish). It seems the German word also does not contain the particle "god" in it. Any idea about the origin of such word?










share|improve this question














I'm looking for the etymology of words like godparent, godchild, etc. In particular, why "god" is added as a prefix? So far I haven't found an explanation. Wiktionary (for godfather) states:




From Middle English godfader, from Old English godfæder (“godfather”), equivalent to god +‎ father. Cognate with Old Saxon godfadar (“godfather”), Middle Dutch godvader (“godfather”), Danish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Swedish gudfader, gudfar (“godfather”), Icelandic guðfaðir (“godfather”). Morphologically god +‎ father.




Not very helpful. Wikipedia does not provide clues either. It states:




... by the end of the 6th century, they were being noted to as "compaters" and "commaters"




which is Latin. Spanish and French terms follow a similar structure, without adding the "god" prefix (eg. "com-padre" and "co-madre" in Spanish). It seems the German word also does not contain the particle "god" in it. Any idea about the origin of such word?







etymology






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asked 21 hours ago









luchonacholuchonacho

9961926




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  • 1





    Note that there is also the regional German word Gote for godmother, and the etymology given by Duden states that it derives from Old High German gota, cognate with Old English godmōdor in the sense of spiritual mother.

    – njuffa
    20 hours ago
















  • 1





    Note that there is also the regional German word Gote for godmother, and the etymology given by Duden states that it derives from Old High German gota, cognate with Old English godmōdor in the sense of spiritual mother.

    – njuffa
    20 hours ago










1




1





Note that there is also the regional German word Gote for godmother, and the etymology given by Duden states that it derives from Old High German gota, cognate with Old English godmōdor in the sense of spiritual mother.

– njuffa
20 hours ago







Note that there is also the regional German word Gote for godmother, and the etymology given by Duden states that it derives from Old High German gota, cognate with Old English godmōdor in the sense of spiritual mother.

– njuffa
20 hours ago












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















37














According to the Wikipedia article on godparents:




As early as the 2nd century AD, infant baptism had begun to gain acceptance among Christians for the spiritual purification and social initiation of infants, the requirement for some confession of faith necessitated the use of adults who acted as sponsors for the child. They vocalized the confession of faith and acted as guarantors of the child’s spiritual beliefs.



Normally, these sponsors were the natural parents of a child, as emphasized in 408 by St. Augustine who suggested that they could, it seems exceptionally, be other individuals. Within a century, the Corpus Juris Civilis indicates that parents had been replaced in this role almost completely. This'll was clarified in 813 when the Council of Munich prohibited natural parents from acting as godparents to their own children.




Godparents, to an extent, acted as 'parents' in the eyes of god, permitted to take a shared burden of the child should something happen to the parents, for example.



While the Latin languages opted for a co-parent, the Germanic languages (including various German dialects as seen in this chart from Wikipedia ) decided to go with 'God'.



I would presume the popularity of having a non-parental godparent would be for social, but also economical reasons, such as tying family bonds and having people to look after the children.



I hope this provides some insight.






share|improve this answer
























  • My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

    – Kevin Krumwiede
    6 hours ago











  • It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

    – Stephen
    2 hours ago



















16














I think it refers to the “role” of the godparents as God’s vicar.




The origin of godparents dates back to the early beginnings of the Christian Church. A sponsor was required for any person desirous of receiving the sacraments of baptism, holy Eucharist and confirmation. The role of the sponsor was to vouch for the person's character and to aid them as they prepared to take the sacraments.



Around 800 AD baptism of infants became commonplace and their sponsors were referred to as "patrinus" in Latin, which translates to "godfather."







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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    37














    According to the Wikipedia article on godparents:




    As early as the 2nd century AD, infant baptism had begun to gain acceptance among Christians for the spiritual purification and social initiation of infants, the requirement for some confession of faith necessitated the use of adults who acted as sponsors for the child. They vocalized the confession of faith and acted as guarantors of the child’s spiritual beliefs.



    Normally, these sponsors were the natural parents of a child, as emphasized in 408 by St. Augustine who suggested that they could, it seems exceptionally, be other individuals. Within a century, the Corpus Juris Civilis indicates that parents had been replaced in this role almost completely. This'll was clarified in 813 when the Council of Munich prohibited natural parents from acting as godparents to their own children.




    Godparents, to an extent, acted as 'parents' in the eyes of god, permitted to take a shared burden of the child should something happen to the parents, for example.



    While the Latin languages opted for a co-parent, the Germanic languages (including various German dialects as seen in this chart from Wikipedia ) decided to go with 'God'.



    I would presume the popularity of having a non-parental godparent would be for social, but also economical reasons, such as tying family bonds and having people to look after the children.



    I hope this provides some insight.






    share|improve this answer
























    • My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

      – Kevin Krumwiede
      6 hours ago











    • It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

      – Stephen
      2 hours ago
















    37














    According to the Wikipedia article on godparents:




    As early as the 2nd century AD, infant baptism had begun to gain acceptance among Christians for the spiritual purification and social initiation of infants, the requirement for some confession of faith necessitated the use of adults who acted as sponsors for the child. They vocalized the confession of faith and acted as guarantors of the child’s spiritual beliefs.



    Normally, these sponsors were the natural parents of a child, as emphasized in 408 by St. Augustine who suggested that they could, it seems exceptionally, be other individuals. Within a century, the Corpus Juris Civilis indicates that parents had been replaced in this role almost completely. This'll was clarified in 813 when the Council of Munich prohibited natural parents from acting as godparents to their own children.




    Godparents, to an extent, acted as 'parents' in the eyes of god, permitted to take a shared burden of the child should something happen to the parents, for example.



    While the Latin languages opted for a co-parent, the Germanic languages (including various German dialects as seen in this chart from Wikipedia ) decided to go with 'God'.



    I would presume the popularity of having a non-parental godparent would be for social, but also economical reasons, such as tying family bonds and having people to look after the children.



    I hope this provides some insight.






    share|improve this answer
























    • My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

      – Kevin Krumwiede
      6 hours ago











    • It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

      – Stephen
      2 hours ago














    37












    37








    37







    According to the Wikipedia article on godparents:




    As early as the 2nd century AD, infant baptism had begun to gain acceptance among Christians for the spiritual purification and social initiation of infants, the requirement for some confession of faith necessitated the use of adults who acted as sponsors for the child. They vocalized the confession of faith and acted as guarantors of the child’s spiritual beliefs.



    Normally, these sponsors were the natural parents of a child, as emphasized in 408 by St. Augustine who suggested that they could, it seems exceptionally, be other individuals. Within a century, the Corpus Juris Civilis indicates that parents had been replaced in this role almost completely. This'll was clarified in 813 when the Council of Munich prohibited natural parents from acting as godparents to their own children.




    Godparents, to an extent, acted as 'parents' in the eyes of god, permitted to take a shared burden of the child should something happen to the parents, for example.



    While the Latin languages opted for a co-parent, the Germanic languages (including various German dialects as seen in this chart from Wikipedia ) decided to go with 'God'.



    I would presume the popularity of having a non-parental godparent would be for social, but also economical reasons, such as tying family bonds and having people to look after the children.



    I hope this provides some insight.






    share|improve this answer













    According to the Wikipedia article on godparents:




    As early as the 2nd century AD, infant baptism had begun to gain acceptance among Christians for the spiritual purification and social initiation of infants, the requirement for some confession of faith necessitated the use of adults who acted as sponsors for the child. They vocalized the confession of faith and acted as guarantors of the child’s spiritual beliefs.



    Normally, these sponsors were the natural parents of a child, as emphasized in 408 by St. Augustine who suggested that they could, it seems exceptionally, be other individuals. Within a century, the Corpus Juris Civilis indicates that parents had been replaced in this role almost completely. This'll was clarified in 813 when the Council of Munich prohibited natural parents from acting as godparents to their own children.




    Godparents, to an extent, acted as 'parents' in the eyes of god, permitted to take a shared burden of the child should something happen to the parents, for example.



    While the Latin languages opted for a co-parent, the Germanic languages (including various German dialects as seen in this chart from Wikipedia ) decided to go with 'God'.



    I would presume the popularity of having a non-parental godparent would be for social, but also economical reasons, such as tying family bonds and having people to look after the children.



    I hope this provides some insight.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 21 hours ago









    A Lambent EyeA Lambent Eye

    1,030220




    1,030220













    • My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

      – Kevin Krumwiede
      6 hours ago











    • It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

      – Stephen
      2 hours ago



















    • My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

      – Kevin Krumwiede
      6 hours ago











    • It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

      – Stephen
      2 hours ago

















    My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

    – Kevin Krumwiede
    6 hours ago





    My only citation for this claim is one of my elementary school teachers, but I offer it in the hope that someone knows of a better source. The claim was that this practice arose to explain the two different genealogies of Jesus that appear in the New Testament canon.

    – Kevin Krumwiede
    6 hours ago













    It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

    – Stephen
    2 hours ago





    It is likely that the two genealogies were the maternal (Matthew, which "proved" him as a Jew) and paternal (Luke, which spoke more to the Greek audience).

    – Stephen
    2 hours ago













    16














    I think it refers to the “role” of the godparents as God’s vicar.




    The origin of godparents dates back to the early beginnings of the Christian Church. A sponsor was required for any person desirous of receiving the sacraments of baptism, holy Eucharist and confirmation. The role of the sponsor was to vouch for the person's character and to aid them as they prepared to take the sacraments.



    Around 800 AD baptism of infants became commonplace and their sponsors were referred to as "patrinus" in Latin, which translates to "godfather."







    share|improve this answer






























      16














      I think it refers to the “role” of the godparents as God’s vicar.




      The origin of godparents dates back to the early beginnings of the Christian Church. A sponsor was required for any person desirous of receiving the sacraments of baptism, holy Eucharist and confirmation. The role of the sponsor was to vouch for the person's character and to aid them as they prepared to take the sacraments.



      Around 800 AD baptism of infants became commonplace and their sponsors were referred to as "patrinus" in Latin, which translates to "godfather."







      share|improve this answer




























        16












        16








        16







        I think it refers to the “role” of the godparents as God’s vicar.




        The origin of godparents dates back to the early beginnings of the Christian Church. A sponsor was required for any person desirous of receiving the sacraments of baptism, holy Eucharist and confirmation. The role of the sponsor was to vouch for the person's character and to aid them as they prepared to take the sacraments.



        Around 800 AD baptism of infants became commonplace and their sponsors were referred to as "patrinus" in Latin, which translates to "godfather."







        share|improve this answer















        I think it refers to the “role” of the godparents as God’s vicar.




        The origin of godparents dates back to the early beginnings of the Christian Church. A sponsor was required for any person desirous of receiving the sacraments of baptism, holy Eucharist and confirmation. The role of the sponsor was to vouch for the person's character and to aid them as they prepared to take the sacraments.



        Around 800 AD baptism of infants became commonplace and their sponsors were referred to as "patrinus" in Latin, which translates to "godfather."








        share|improve this answer














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        edited 18 hours ago

























        answered 21 hours ago









        user240918user240918

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        25.6k1070151






























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